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"WHAT IS THE (NEW) TESTMENT"?

The short answer to the question of "What Is The (New) Testament"? is plainly set forth in the (strictly Jewish) Book of Hebrews, as follows:

Heb 9:15 "AND FOR THIS CAUSE HE (Christ Jesus in context) IS THE MEDIATOR OF THE (NEW) TESTAMENT, THAT BY MEANS OF DEATH,(FOR THE REDEMPTION OF THE TRANSGRESSIONS THAT WERE UNDER THE FIRST (OLD) TESTAMENT), THEY WHICH ARE CALLED MIGHT RECEIVE THE PROMISE OF ETERNAL INHERITANCE", i.e. as millennial, saved, resurrected Jews alone, in context, e.g., Heb 8:8-13, Heb Ch 10, Jer 31:31-34.

Simply stated, the foregoing verse says that The (New) Testament will be only "to" those saved, resurrected, millennial Jews, who were saved "during" their (Old) Testament Covenant of Law that "began" at Mt Sinai and "ended" at Calvary. It's "shadow" was replaced by "The Reality" Who, at Calvary, "perfectly fulfilled it" FOR them; e.g., Ro. 8:1-4.

But in order to fully understand The (New) Testament, one must first understand The (Old) Testament; i.e., WHY the latter was first given? WHEN the latter was first given? WHERE the latter was first given? EXCLUSIVELY TO WHOM the latter was first given? And WHY the latter was totally abolished by Christ's death at Calvary, as stated earlier in this study? To that end, let us now consider the following sequential answers:

"Why Was The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, First Given at Mt Sinai"?

For the first 2,500 years of biblical history, the entire world's post-flood population was composed "solely of Gentiles". Following the flood it is said. "BY THESE THREE Gentile) SONS OF NOAH, SHEM, HAM, AND JAPHETH,(and their three Gentile wives), WAS THE WHOLE EARTH OVERSPREAD", e.g., Gen 9:18,19, Gen 10:5,32.

Years later, "AS IT WAS IN THE (pre-flood) DAYS OF NOAH", the world's entire Gentile population (once again) "became universally apostate", e.g., Gen 11:1-9. Thereafter, in order "to preserve His Oracles" and "His Seed Line of Faith", God chose to "TAKE OUT OF THE (totally apostate) GENTILES, A PEOPLE FOR HIS NAME", Acts 15:14.

God did so "by calling and saving" a previously uncircumcised, 75 year old, pagan Gentile named Abram in 2126 BC.; almost 4,000 years after the creation of Gentile Adam and Eve of Gen Ch 1& 2.

It was at Gen Ch 12 that God entered into "A Covenant of Promise" with Gentile saved Abram, that God would (in due time) "MAKE OF THEE A GREAT NATION" at Gen 12:2.

Something that would not occur "de-facto", until 430 years later at Mt Sinai, i.e. after Gentile Abram's Gentile son Isaac, begat his Gentile son Jacob. Who, along with 70 of his Gentile kinfolk, went into 430 years of Egyptian captivity. During which time, God created (a strictly numerical nation), of well over 600,000 Gentile souls, Ex 12:37,38. "OUT OF WHOM", upon their deliverance, at Mt Sinai, "GOD CALLED AND CREATED, THE JEWISH ETHNIC NATION OF ISRAEL", Ex 19:1-8, i.e.2,500 years after His creation of Gentile Adam and Eve, at Gen Ch 1 & 2.

So, for the first 2,500 years of biblical history, there was no Jewish Nation of Israel! And to label any scriptures from Adam in Eden, to Moses atop Mt Sinai, as (Old) Testament, Jewish epistles, would be to wrongly so label them! Because there is not one word of The (Old) Testament, from Gen 1:1, to Ex 19:1-8. Now let us consider "The (Old) Testament"

"THE (OLD) TESTAMENT"

"WHEN? And WHERE? Was The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, First Given"?

As stated earlier, The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, was "first given" at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8, 1491 B. C. Nearly 4,500 years after Adam and Eve were created at Gen Ch 1 & 2.

"TO WHOM? Exclusively. Was The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, Given"?

Deut 4:8 "FOR WHAT NATION IS THERE SO GREAT, WHO HATH GOD SO NIGH UNTO THEM, AS THE LORD OUR GOD IS, IN ALL THINGS THAT WE CALL UPON HIM FOR? AND WHAT NATION IS THERE SO GREAT, THAT HATH STATUTES AND JUDGEMENTS SO RIGHTEOUS AS ALL THIS LAW,WHICH I SET BEFORE YOU (the newly created Nation of Israel) THIS DAY?

Deut 5:1-3 "AND MOSES CALLED ALL ISRAEL, AND SAID UNTO THEM. HEAR O ISRAEL THE STATUTES AND JUDGEMENTS WHICH I SPEAK IN YOUR EARS THIS DAY. THAT YE MAY LEARN THEM, AND KEEP THEM, AND DO THEM. THE LORD OUR GOD MADE A COVENANT WITH US IN HOREB. THE LORD MADE NOT THIS COVENANT WITH OUR FATHERS, BUT WITH US, EVEN US, WHO ARE ALL OF US HERE ALIVE THIS DAY"

There it is. For all to read and accept. GOD MADE "THE (OLD) TESTAMENT COVENANT OF LAW, SOLELY WITH THE NEWLY CREATED JEWISH NATION OF ISRAEL, AT MT SINAI. Not with anyone "before that day". Not with anyone "after that day". Christ Jesus, repeats this in His Messianic Ps 147:19,20 "HE SHOWETH HIS WORD UNTO JACOB. HIS STATUTES AND JUDGEMENTS UNTO ISRAEL. HE HATH NOT DEALT SO WITH ANY NATION. AND AS FOR HIS JUDGEMENTS, THEY HAVE NOT KNOWN THEM". Now, let us go into far greater detail, as to WHY? The (Old) Testament, Ten-Commandment, Letter of The Law of Moses "entered", for the first time in biblical history, at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8.

It was not, "that the Gentiles were without law before God", during their first 2,500 years of biblical history, i.e. From Adam in Eden, until Moses atop Mt Sinai, as so shown in the following verses:

Rom 2:14,15 "FOR WHEN THE GENTILES, WHICH HAVE NOT THE LAW,(i.e. the foregoing strictly Jewish Covenant, of The Letter of the Law of Moses), DO BY NATURE THE THINGS CONTAINED IN THE LAW (of Moses). THESE (Gentiles), HAVING NOT (THAT) LAW), ARE A LAW UNTO THEMSELVES. WHICH SHOW THE WORK OF (THAT) LAW WRITTEN IN THEIR HEARTS,(and not on two tables of stone, as at Mt Sinai). THEIR CONSCIENCE ALSO BEARING WITNESS. AND THEIR THOUGHTS THE MEANWHILE ACCUSING, OR ELSE EXCUSING ONE ANOTHER". There it is. The Gentiles, from Adam, to Moses were "under the law of human conscience"! That being so, Paul then asked the following question, as to WHY? God chose, at Mt Sinai, to place the newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, "under" The (Old) Testament Covenant of Law, written and engraved upon two tables of stone. Gal 3:19 "WHEREFORE THEN SERVETH THE (Old Testament, Covenant of) LAW"?

Paul then proceeded to answer his own foregoing question, as follows:

"IT WAS ADDED, BECAUSE OF TRANSGRESSIONS, TILL THE SEED (i.e. Christ Jesus in context) SHOULD COME".

Yes, "it" was "added to something, "till" Christ Jesus should come, and "completely fulfill" ALL of it's righteous demands", by walking in perfect obedience "to it", FOR us, e.g., Rom 8:1-4. And, "by paying the penalty of death",(for all), who have broken it, throughout all generations.

It was at Mt Sinai, that the newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, chose to reject The (Grace Only) Gospel of The Gentiles, e.g., Rom Ch 4, and Gal Ch 3, and arbitrarily demanded of God, "GIVE US THE LAW, AND WE WILL KEEP IT". Not one of them, or us, have ever done so, nor ever will do so, John 7:19 "DID NOT MOSES GIVE YOU THE LAW? AND YET NONE OF YOU KEEPETH THE LAW". Rom 2:23 "FOR ALL HAVE SINNED AND COME SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD".

According to God's "permissive", and not God's "directive" will, God granted the newly delivered Nation of Israel, to be (arbitrarily) placed under "The (Old) Testament Coven- ant,(Letter) of The Laws of Moses. But as the Apostle Paul is quick to declare, in Rom Ch 4, and Gal Ch 3. The laws of God,(be they that of the Gentile's law of conscience', or the Jewish Letter of the Laws of Moses), were never given as a way, to gain eternal life,, i.e. "by keeping them". But solely for the following scriptural reasons:

Rom 3:19 "--THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED, AND ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD". God's laws are thus "the mouth stopper", of those who would claim "to keep them", e.g., John 7:19, with Rom 3:23, Rom 4:15 "BECAUSE THE LAW, WORKETH WRATH. FOR WHERE NO LAW IS, THERE IS NO TRANSGRESSION". The laws of God "do not save the sinner", but "condemns the sinner".

Rom 5:20 "THE LAW ENTERED, THAT THE OFFENCE MIGHT ABOUND". More laws, equals more law breaking. Which in turn, "leads to more offences", and "more con- viction", by the human conscience, and the revealed letter of the law of Moses) for doing so.

The simple answer, as to why God "added Jewish Laws", to the (already existing) Gentile laws, at Mt Sinai, may be summed up further in Paul's following words:

Rom 3:20 "FOR BY THE LAW, IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN". Again, "The laws of God", do not "convert the sinner". "The laws of God", "convict the sinner". As Paul again so stated this very thing, in the following verse:

Rom 7:7 "WHAT SHALL WE SAY THEN? IS THE LAW SIN? NAY, I HAD NOT KNOWN SIN BUT BY THE LAW. FOR I HAD NOT KNOWN LUST (was a sin), EXCEPT THE LAW HAD SAID: THOU SHALT NOT COVET".

At Mt Sinai, newly created National Israel, arbitrarily demanded, to be placed "under the law", and that they would "work out their own salvation", under it. So God gave The Jews, well over 660 "commandments", "judgments", and "ordinances", that were simply "added to", the Gentile's "laws of human conscience", Rom 2:14,15.

The Jews "continued to wrestle with those ADDED LAWS", for the next 1,500 years of biblical history. And as stated earlier in this study by Christ Jesus, at John 7:19. Not one of them, "ever kept them". So WHY? did God "ADD" all of the foregoing "laws" to National Israel, at Ex 19:1-8?

Gal 3:24,25 "WHEREFORE, THE (Mosaic) LAW WAS OUR SCHOOLMASTER, TO BRING US UNTO CHRIST. THAT WE MIGHT BE JUSTIFIED BY FAITH (in Him)". BUT AFTER THAT FAITH IS COME, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER (our Mosaic law) SCHOOLMASTER". Now, consider the following, easy to be understood analogue, of "the Godly purpose" of God's laws:

(1). For by a thermometer, is the knowledge of a fever.
(2). The thermometer, does not cause the fever.
(3). The thermometer, does not cure the fever.
(4). The thermometer, simply "lets you know", you "have a fever", and had better find "a remedy", for that which is causing the fever. And in like manner---:

(1). For by the law, is the knowledge of sin.
(2). The law, does not cause that sin.
(3). The law, does not cure that sin.
(4). The law, simply lets you know, "you have the terminal disease of sin", and had better seek "the one and only scriptural remedy" for it.

Much like "looking at one's dirty face", reflected in a highly polished mirror, "The Laws of God", let us "see" our reflected sinful dirtiness. In that sense, alone God's Laws, are an example of God's Grace. For without being given such "knowledge" of our sinfulness, one would never "be led", to seek the scriptural remedy for it.

* * *

Thus far we have learned that "the gentiles" were saved, "BY GRACE, THROUGH FAITH, WITHOUT THE WORKS OF THE (Mosaic) LAW, e.g., Gal 2:8, for the first 2,500 years of biblical history. But, that "the gentiles" had once again reached a state of universal i.e., "AS IT WAS IN THE (pre-flood) DAYS OF NOAH", And that God then chose, "to keep alive, a seed line of faith", and preserve His Oracles, "BY TAKING OUT OF THE GENTILES, A PEOPLE, FOR HIS NAME", e.g., Acts 15:14, with Rom 3:1,2, and Rom 9:4,5. In order to "deal with" the newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, God agreed, to place "The Jews" alone, "under" well over 660 "commandments", "judgments", and "ordinances", for the following Godly reasons:

(1). The Ten Commandments, to govern Israel's moral lives.
(2). The Judgments, to govern Israel's civil affairs.
(3). The Ordinances, to govern Israel's religious observances.

God simultaneously created The Levitical Priesthood, "to administer" the above As such, The (Old) Testament Covenant of Law, given solely to the newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8, was an ad-interim, parenthetical, temporary Covenant, meant to be totally abolished, AFTER, it had served it's Godly temporary purpose, "AND WAS TAKEN OUT OF THE WAY, WHEN NAILED TO CHRIST'S CROSS AT CALVARY", e.g., Rom 10:4, Col 2:14, Eph 2:15. Which brings us to the Godly reason, WHY the foregoing, strictly Jewish,(Old) Testament, is to be replaced, by the still strictly Jewish,(New) Testament. And precisely WHEN that replacement will indeed next occur? But first---:WHY IT WILL OCCUR"

Gal 3:21,22 "--FOR (IF) THERE HAD BEEN A LAW GIVEN, WHICH COULD HAVE GIVEN LIFE, VERILY, RIGHTEOUSNESS (SHOULD HAVE BEEN) BY THE LAW. (BUT), THE SCRIPTURES HAVE CONCLUDED (ALL) UNDER SIN. THAT THE PROMISE, BY FAITH IN CHRIST JESUS, MIGHT BE GIVEN TO THEM THAT BELIEVE". Why so?

Rom 8:3,4, "(FOR WHAT THE LAW COULD NOT DO), IN THAT IT WAS WEAK THROUGH THE FLESH GOD, SENDING HIS OWN SON, IN THE LIKENESS OF SINFUL FLESH, AND FOR SIN. CONDEMNED SIN, IN THE FLESH. THAT THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF THE LAW MIGHT BE FULFILLED (IN) US. Not, BY us. WHO WALK NOT AFTER THE FLESH, BUT AFTER THE SPIRIT".

Simply stated. Christ Jesus came "to perfectly keep the law" FOR Israel, and FOR all mankind. That could never "keep it" FOR themselves! God's law, was not "weak". All those, who TRIED to keep it, "were "weak". As Jesus said. "THE SPIRIT IS WILLING, BUT THE FLESH IS WEAK". It is important now to note: The newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, "quickly broke" The (Old) Testament Covenant of Law, made between God and The Jews, at Mt Sinai, e. g Ex 32:8-10.

Even a first year law student knows, that if one party to a covenant, i.e. "to a contract". "breaks" their portion of that contract. The entire contract, "becomes null and void"! Jehovah God "kept" His portion of The (Old) Testament Covenant of Law, that He made with National Israel at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8. National Israel did not "keep" their portion of it, as shown in Ex 32:8-10.

At 1st Samuel Ch 8, 1120 B. C. (almost 5,000 years after the creation of Adam and Eve, and almost 360 years following the creation of The Jewish Nation of Israel at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8), National Israel arbitrarily demanded that they be given an earthly king, and an earthly kingdom. God, had the prophet Samuel tell Israel what would be the dire consequences of getting that demand, e. g.1 Sam 8:9-18. But Israel replied by saying, at 1 Sam 8:19,20. "NEVERTHELESS--BUT WE WILL HAVE A KING OVER US". Thus rejecting Jehovah God, as "The King of Israel". King Saul, became Israel's first king, 1 Sam Ch 9. Followed by a succession of so called "good kings", and "bad kings", that eventually led Israel into complete rebellion against God, and the end of Israel's earthly monarchy when their last "bad king" Zedekiah, caused the entire nation of Israel to be taken into 70 years of Babylonian captivity, in 610 B. C. w/2 Chron 36:11-21. A condition, which has continued to exist, as evidenced by Christ's Apostles question of Acts 1:6 "LORD, WILT THOU AT THIS TIME (RESTORE AGAIN) THE KINGDOM OF ISRAEL"?

In that respect, it could be said. That The (Old) Testament, concerned Israel's earthly king, and earthly kingdom, mentioned earlier, and WHAT, will be Israel's Heavenly King, and His Heavenly (New) Testament Kingdom. Which we refer to, as the coming (millennial) reign of Christ Jesus over planet earth, described in Luke 1:31-33, Heb 8:8-6-13, Jer 31:31-34, Rev 20:1-4, which will be "the future answer" to the foregoing Apostle's question of Acts 1:6. AND, the answer to the (Jewish) prayer of Matt 6:10 "THY KINGDOM COME. THY WILL BE DONE. ON EARTH, AS IT IS IN HEAVEN". And, is the main topic of the strictly Jewish Book of Revelations. Now, to consider---

"THE (NEW) TESTAMENT"

And therein lies the exclusively Jewish Gospel, contained in the four Jewish synoptic gospels of Matt, Mark, Luke, and John, and as set forth in Matt 3:2, i.e. "IN THOSE DAYS CAME JOHN THE BAPTIST PREACHING IN THE WILDERNESS OF JUDAE, AND SAYING (to National Israel alone), REPENT YE. FOR THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN (. i.e. the future millennial, Davidic Kingdom, by the forces of heaven, over planet earth), IS AT HAND".

This future, millennial, "Kingdom (by) Heaven", and it's God-King Christ Jesus, IS, the basic theme of The (New) Testament, which Christ Jesus, paid for in full "de-jure" at Calvary. BUT, which will not be placed in force "de-facto", until the coming millennial reign of Christ Jesus over planet earth, e.g., Rev 19:11-16.

Although Matt, Mark, Luke, and John set forth the gospel message "about" the future (New) Testament, millennial, Kingdom of The Heavens, over planet earth. They are not(New) Testament, Church epistles, as commonly so mis-labeled. But are simply "continuations" of The (Old) Testament,(strictly Jewish History epistles, which had been temporarily interrupted for nearly 400 years, following the then last (Old) Testament, Jewish epistle of Malachi.

How do we KNOW, that Matt. Mark, Luke, and John are not (New) Testament epistles?

Carefully consider the following related verses:

Heb 9:18,17 "FOR WHERE A (New) TESTAMENT IS, THERE MUST ALSO, OF A NECESSITY, BE THE DEATH OF THE TESTATOR (i.e. death of The Willmaker). In this case Christ Jesus.

FOR A TESTAMENT IS OF FORCE,(AFTER MEN ARE DEAD). OTHERWISE, IT IS OF NO STRENGTH AT ALL,(WHILE, THE TESTATOR LIVETH)". There it is. Although Christ Jesus "paid for in full (dejure), for His future (New Testament) millennial Kingdom of the Heavens, over planet earth, at Calvary. The foregoing verses prove, beyond any doubt, that "it", The (New) Testament, could not possibly "have been in force", ANY TIME,(DURING), His earthly life and ministry of Matt, Mark, Luke, and John! Why not? He, as The Testator of His "(New) Will", did not "die", till the very end of those four synoptic gospels! Although "told about it", in those four Jewish,(Old Testament) epistles, National Israel, chose to not only reject Christ Jesus then, as their Jewish Messiah, AND, the immediate setting up of His (New) Testament Kingdom, DURING Christ's Incarnation among them. But, continued to reject "it", and "Him", when "re-offered" to National Israel alone", DURING the entire Jewish Book of Acts. A subject, covered in much greater detail, in other related studies by this same author.

Here, it is of the utmost importance to note. That (The New Testament Will), is intended "to millennially govern", those saved, resurrected Jews, who were saved, DURING their (Old) Testament dispensation of law, i.e. as follows:

Heb 9:15 "AND FOR THIS CAUSE, HE (Christ Jesus) IS THE MEDIATOR OF THE (NEW) TESTAMENT. THAT BY MEANS OF DEATH,(FOR THE REDEMPTION OF THE TRANSGRESSIONS THAT WERE UNDER THE FIRST old TESTAMENT THAT THEY (Jews) WHICH ARE CALLED, MIGHT RECEIVE THE PROMISE OF ETERNAL INHERITANCE". i.e. As confined solely to saved resurrected, millennial,(New) Testament Jews". See Matt 19:27-30, w/ Luke 1:31-33. That The (New Testament), millennial, Kingdom (by the forces of Heaven), will be strictly Israelitish, is again plainly so stated, as follows:

Heb 8:6-13 "BUT NOW, HATH HE OBTAINED A MORE EXCELLENT MINISTRY. BY HOW MUCH ALSO HE IS THE MEDIATOR OF A BETTER COVENANT,(than the (Old) one). WHICH WAS ESTABLISHED UPON BETTER PROMISES. A subject "covered", in the Jewish Book of Hebrews.

FOR IF THE FIRST (Old) COVENANT HAD BEEN FAULTLESS (on Israel's part), THEN NO PLACE SHOULD HAVE BEEN SOUGHT FOR THE SECOND (their (New) Covenant). FOR FINDING FAULT WITH THEM (i.e. The Nation of Israel), HE SAITH. BEHOLD, THE DAYS COME SAITH THE LORD, WHEN I WILL MAKE A (NEW) COVENANT (WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL, AND WITH THE HOUSE OF JUDAH). What could be plainer than that? i.e. Only with "The Jews".

NOT ACCORDING TO THE (Old) COVENANT, THAT I MADE WITH THEIR (Jewish) FATHERS, IN THE DAY WHEN I TOOK THEM BY THE HAND TO LEAD THEM OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT. BECAUSE THEY (the fathers) CONTIN- UED NOT IN MY (Old) COVENANT, AND I REGARDED THEM NOT, SAITH THE LORD.

Now, note the following, WHICH IS The (NEW) Testament:

FOR THIS IS THE (New) COVENANT,(THAT I WILL MAKE WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL). AFTER THOSE (Great Tribulation) DAYS, SAITH THE LORD. I WILL PUT MY LAWS INTO (THEIR) MIND, AND WRITE THEM IN (THEIR) HEARTS" (Not on tables of stone, this time, as at Mt Sinai. But "in their saved minds, and in their saved hearts. AND I WILL BE TO THEM (i.e. to the saved, resurrected House of Israel alone, in context), A GOD. AND THEY (the saved, resurrected, millennial, House of Israel alone),-- --SHALL BE TO ME A PEOPLE". We, of course, of The Mystery Church, are Christ's One Body, not His people.

Yes, under The (Old) Testament, "the Jews", chose an earthly king and an earthly kingdom and eventually "lost both", Hos 10:3,15, 2 Kings 23:29, Acts 1:6.

Under their millennial (New) Testament, "saved Jews" will eventually "recognize and accept" Christ Jesus, as their previously rejected Messiah. Then, WILL HE RESTORE AGAIN THE KINGDOM TO ISRAEL, Luke 1:31-33. At that time, the saved, resurrected "Jews" will be given "the resurrected capacity", to THIS TIME, "walk in perfect obedience to God's (Old) Testament Covenant Laws. But this time, those "laws" will not "be re- demptive", but "solely commemorative", e.g., Isa Ch 66.

How, saved, resurrected "Gentiles", as members of The (Old) Creation, will "share" in Israel's millennial Kingdom (of) The Heavens, over planet earth. AND, how our Mystery Church , of Eph 3:1-10,(as members of A (New) Creation), will also share in that future millennial kingdom, is explained in far greater detail in other related studies by this same author.

"IN SUMMATION"

(1). The (Old) Testament, "did not enter", until Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8. Nearly 2,500 years after God created Adam and Eve, at Gen Ch 1 & 2.

(2). The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, was given solely to the newly created Jewish Nation of Israel, at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8.

(3). The Jews, "wrestled" with "The (Old) Testament, Covenant of Law, for the next 1,500 years of biblical history. And not one of them, "ever kept it", John 7:19.

(4). The (Old) Testament, Covenant Law, was never given, "as a way", to gain eternal life,. but only, AS ISRAEL'S "SCHOOLMASTER", to bring them back, "to salvation only by grace, through faith, without the works of the law", which they had rejected at Mt Sinai.

(5). National Israel, arbitrarily demanded, that they be "given an earthly king, and an earthly monarchy". God, granted Israel's request. Not by His directive, but by His permissive will. Permitting Israel, "to learn, the hard way".

(6) This Israel did. Eventually, losing both their earthly king, and their earthly monarchy.

(7). The (Old) Testament was "God's way, of governing Israel", through well over 660 (unique) "commandments", "judgments", and "ordinances", which lasted 1,500 yrs.

(8). The (New) Testament, will be "Christ's way of governing, saved, resurrected "Jews", during His 1,000 year,(millennial) reign, by the forces of Heaven, over planet earth), of Luke 1:31-33. No, there is not one word of The (New) Testament, as yet placed "IN FORCE" in the so-called New Testament (Jewish Epistles), of Matt, Mark, Luke, and John.

(9). Matt, Mark, Luke, and John, are not (New) Testament, "church epistles", as wrongly so labeled. They are simply "a continuation", of (Old Testament), strictly Jewish epistles, "merely proclaiming" (the future), strictly Jewish, millennial, Kingdom of Heaven's (New Testament), set forth in Heb 8:6-11; Heb 9:15-17, Heb 10"16, Jer 31:31.

Wellington


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