Note: Harry does not endorse the above advertisements from Geocities.


"UNDERSTANDING (JEWISH) JAMES, CHAPTER 2"


Vs 24 "(YE SEE) THEN. HOW THAT BY WORKS A MAN IS JUSTIFIED. AND NOT BY FAITH ONLY".

Vs 25 "LIKEWISE ALSO. WAS NOT RAHAB THE HARLOT JUSTIFIED BY WORKS--?

Vs 26 "FOR AS THE BODY WITHOUT THE SPIRIT IS DEAD. SO FAITH WITHOUT WORKS IS DEAD ALSO".

Most, if not all of the false teachings concerning the relationship between "FAITH", and "WORKS", can be directly traced to the "un-dispensational" reading of James, Ch 2. In that Chapter, James indeed "appears", to completely contradict Paul's Gospel Message of--SALVATION, AS BEING SOLELY BY GRACE, THROUGH FAITH. AND AS BEING TOTALLY APART FROM, ANY, AND ALL, "WORKS OF THE LAWS OF MOSES", Eph 2:8, 9.

In James, Ch 2, James does indeed repeatedly and emphatically state, --"THAT FAITH, WITHOUT WORKS, IS DEAD", i.e., "THAT ONE'S FAITH. PLUS, ONE'S GOOD WORKS. EQUALS ONE'S SALVATION". But is "that" what James was "really saying" in James Ch 2?

It will be the main purpose of this study to prove, not only scripturally but dispensationally as well, that in James, Ch 2, James is not setting forth any gospel message diametrically opposed to that taught by The Apostle Paul. But that James (and Paul) are merely presenting TWO DIFFERENT DISPENSATIONAL VIEWS, OF THE SAME IDENTICAL GOSPEL TRUTH! How can we prove that this is so?

There is a simple, infallible, "scriptural formula" for arriving at, any and all doctrinal truths! In 1 Cor 2:13, Paul calls that "formula--" COMPARING SPIRITUAL WITH SPIRITUAL". Or in other words. "BY PERMITTING THE WORD OF GOD, TO INTERPRET THE WORD OF GOD". Why so? As it states in the following verse of 2 Pet 1:21, "KNOWING THIS FIRST.THAT NO PROPHECY OF THE SCRIPTURE, (IS OF ANY PRIVATE INTERPRETATION). No one has "the scriptural right" (to personally interpret) any word, line, verse, chapter, or book, of The Holy Bible. Peter said, that The Bible is to simply--"to interpret itself"!

Here it is of the utmost importance to note. That in Heb 1:1, 2 it plainly states, "THAT GOD DID SPEAK, AT DIFFERENT TIMES, TO DIFFERENT PEOPLE, AND IN DECIDEDLY DIFFERENT MANNERS". Yes, God did indeed create His "different dispensational programs". And as a result of the foregoing "different programs",
in 2 Tim 2:15, Paul states. That each of us are to "RIGHTLY DIVIDE" the entire Bible, i.e., as to (which one) of God's "different dispensational programs", are "in view". How does one do so? In 1 Cor 10:32, Paul does so for us, as follows: "GIVE NONE OFFENCE. NEITHER TO (THE JEWS). NOR TO (THE GENTILES. NOR TO The Rom 16:24, 26, Eph 3:1-10, (Mysterious) CHURCH) OF GOD".

There it is. Every word, line, verse, chapter, and book in The Bible, is solely written (to but one) of the foregoing uniquely different, dispensational bodies, i.e., THE JEWS---THE GENTILES, or--THE MYSTEREY CHURCH.

Therefore. To take any word, line, verse, chapter, or book, written solely (to but one) of these 3 bodies. And either to ignorantly, or intentionally try "to make it apply", to (one or both of the other 2 bodies), for which it was never dispensationally intended. Would be--"TO (WRONGLY DIVIDE) THE WORD OF TRUTH", and make one, "AN ASHAMED WORKMAN DISAPPROVED OF GOD", i.e., as the also reverse truth of 2 Tim 2:15. .

So after having read the above very carefully. Consider the following 3 related facts:

(1). ALTHOUGH ALL SCRIPTURES ARE WRITTEN (FOR US). 2 Tim 2:16, 17.

(2). NOT ALL SCRIPTURES ARE WRITTEN (TO US). Heb 1:1, 2; 1 Cor 10:32.

THEREFORE---

(3). IT IS POSSIBLE TO BE SCRIPTURALLY RIGHT. BUT DISPENSATIONALLY WRONG".

While keeping in mind the foregoing 2 facts, let us now determine. (TO WHICH ONE) OF THE FOREGOING 3 DISPENSATIONAL BODIES, IS THE BOOK OF JAMES (SOLELY) WRITTEN? i.e. "THE JEWS"? "THE GENTILES"?, or "THE (Mystery) CHURCH", of Eph 3:1-10, Rom 16:23, 26.?

James 1:1 "JAMES, A SERVANT OF GOD, AND OF OUR LORD CHRIST JESUS. (TO THE TWELVE TRIBES (of Israel) , WHICH ARE SCATTERED ABROAD. GREETINGS").

There it is. The Book of James, is therefore (a strictly Jewish epistle), and that it was written (solely to) THE TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL, SCATTERED ABROAD", i.e., As the so called "Jewish Diaspora", which had then fled the severe persecution, that immediately followed the slaying of The Jewish Messiah, Christ Jesus, at Calvary e.g., Acts 7:1; Acts 9:1; Acts 26:10, etc.

Thus, we may both "scripturally, and dispensationally" conclude thus far: That although The (Jewish) Book of James, was written (FOR) us, 2 Tim 3:16. . Inasmuch as (we) are not members of The Twelve Tribes of Israel--. James Epistle was not written (TO) us, e.g. James 1:1. . .

Here it is of the utmost importance to note, Gal 2:6-9, i.e., where the two entirely different gospels of-- "The Gospel (of) The Circumcision", (and) "The Gospel (of) The Un-circumcision" are plainly identified. The former, being there confined solely to The Twelve Jewish Apostles, and their exclusive Gospel of The Jews. While The Gospel of The Gentiles, as then being confined, solely to Paul, as The Apostle of the Gentiles, Rom 15:16.

Notice also, in the foregoing Gal 2:1-9. That the (Jewish) Apostle James-- (the author of) The Jewish Epistle of James in question). Then and there agreed, together with the other Jewish Apostles. T confine their (written and oral Jewish Gospel (of) The Circumcision, solely to The Jewish Nation of Israel. Which of course perfectly agrees with the opening line of James Jewish Epistle as stated earlier--i.e. "TO THE TWELVE TRIBES (of Israelites) WHICH ARE SCATTERED ABROAD. GREETINGS".

Therefore we may also conclude. That although The Jewish Epistle of James is all true. It does not contain one word of (Gentile) doctrinal truth". Nor one word of (our) "Mystery Church, doctrinal truth", nor it's Mystery Church's "dispensational programs" Therefore, we may again conclude. That to (misuse) the strictly Jewish Book of James, and it's exclusively Jewish Gospel (of) The Circumcision, i.e., to supposedly teach "Mystery Church Truths", or "Mystery Church Doctrines", or "Mystery Church Programs", (as many are prone to so do). Would be to present The (Jewish) Book of James, as being "WRONGLY DIVIDED""..

All of the foregoing, being established as scriptural facts. Let us now return to James Chapter 2, and determine precisely what James meant, when he said: the following profound words::

Vs 14, "WHAT DOTH IT PROFIT, MY BRETHREN. THOUGH A MAN SAY HE HATH FAITH, AND HAVE NOT WORKS? CAN FAITH (i.e. faith alone, without works) SAVE HIM"?

Vs 17, "EVEN SO. FAITH, IF IT HATH NOT WORKS, IS DEAD BEING ALONE".

Vs 18, "YEA, (A MAN MAY SAY). THOU HAST FAITH, AND I HAVE WORKS; (SHOW ME) THY FAITH WITHOUT THY WORKS, AND (I WILL SHOW THEE) MY FAITH--BY MY WORKS".

Vs 2O "BUT WILT THOU KNOW O VAIN MAN. THAT FAITH, WITHOUT WORKS, IS DEAD"?

Vs 21, 22 "WAS NOT ABRAHAM OUR FATHER JUSTIFIED BY WORKS, WHEN HE HAD OFFERED ISAAC HIS SON UPON THE ALTARS? ho for whatever reason(s) would set forth the totally unscriptural doctrine of-- "FAITH, PLUS WORKS, EQUALS SALVATION". Yes, upon one's superficial reading of the above. James does indeed "appear to be saying" that very thing! That is UNTIL--one examines The Jewish Epistle of James (and James Ch 2 in question)--not only "in context", but according to it's unique "dispensational setting" as well; i.e. as follows:

(1). Notice, in the foregoing verses, of James Ch 2, the "operative words" of-----("THOUGH A MAN SAY"); ("YEA, A MAN MAY SAY)-(SHOW ME), and (I WILL SHOW YOU"). ("SEEST THOU"?). and ("YE SEE".

Yes. In full context, and paraphrasing James, : ("I CAN TELL YOU), ABOUT MY FAITH", but--((UNTIL YOU SEE) MY VISIBLE EXPRESSION OF THAT FAITH--BY MY ACCOMPANYING GOOD WORKS"--"MY FAITH, WITHOUT THOSE (VISIBLE) WORKS WOULD BE DEAD (TO YOU)--But not before God said Paul in Rom 4:1-8. Why so? 1 Sam 16:7 "--FOR THE LORD SEETH NOT AS MAN SEETH. FOR MAN LOOKETH ON THE OUTWARD APPEARANCE. BUT THE LORD, LOOKETH ON THE HEART".

(2). As for Paul's "doctrinal answer" to James' question of James 2:21, 22 of--- "WAS NOT ABRAHAM OUR FATHER, JUSTIFIED BY WORKS, WHEN HE HAD OFFERED ISAAC HIS SON UPON THE ALTAR--"?

Paul, responded to that doctrinal question in Rom 4:1-8, by saying: "WHAT SHALL WE SAY THEN. THAT ABRAHAM OUR FATHER, AS PERTAINING TO THE FLESH HATH FOUND? FOR (IF) ABRAHAM (WERE) JUSTIFIED BY WORKS. HE HATH WHEREOF TO GLORY-------BUT NOT BEFORE GOD.

FOR WHAT SAITH THE SCRIPTURE? ABRAHAM (BELIEVED) GOD, AND (IT) WAS COUNTED UNTO HIM FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS. NOW (TO HIM THAT WORKETH) IS THE REWARD NOT RECKONED OF GRACE, BUT OF DEBT. BUT (TO HIM THAT WORKETH NOT). BUT BELIEVETH ON HIM THAT JUSTIFIETH THE UNGODLY. HIS FAITH (not his works), IS COUNTED FOR RIGHTEOUS- NESS. EVEN AS DAVID ALSO DESCRIBETH THE BLESSEDNESS OF THE MAN UNTO WHOM GOD IMPUTETH RIGHTEOUSNESS--- (WITHOUT WORKS)--".

(3). Notice, in the foregoing verses. That one's so called "good works" are not counted (for) them, but rather, are counted (against) them, i.e., as "a debt", not as "a credit", as far one's "righteousness" is considered by God. .

(4). Perhaps "the main key" in placing The Jewish Book of James in it's proper "dispensational setting", is found in 1 Cor 1:22, where it states. "FOR (THE JEWS) REQUIRE A SIGN--".Yes, from the creation of The Jewish Nation of Israel, at Mt Sinai, Ex 19:1-8, The Jews have always "REQUIRED SIGNS" from God, on numerous issues, e.g. Ex 4:1-9. "Professing" to be a saved Jew, one had to (visibly show) THE REQUIRED HOLY SPIRIT ENDOWED SIGN GIFTS, (OF THE JEWISH) BELIEVERS) of Matt 1O:1-8, Mark 16:15-18. In other words. --Because "THE JEWS REQUIRED SIGNS OF GOD" Then "GOD'S WAYS BEING THEN ALWAYS "EQUAL", e.g. Ezek 18:25, 29; 29:33. God always "REQUIRED SIGNS"--from The Jews! The Jews alone, had to (show) their already acquired, inward, saving faith, (by) their outward manifestation of certain required "good works"--i.e. that (should accompany) their already inwrought saving faith! Something which the (Jewish) Apostle James, was simply "repeating to those Jews", whom he was addressing throughout the entire (Jewish) Book of James--and in James Ch 2, in particular.

(5). In James Ch 2, James is merely stating that required "by one believing Jew", of "another professing Jew", i.e. That they must (show) their "professed faith" (by) their visible works, as demanded under The Laws of Moses. In Rom Ch 4, Paul is merely saying--"what God sees", when He judges anyone's "profession of faith"--i.e.--The person's "heart"--and not-- "their visible good works". So neither James, nor Paul--are "contradicting" the other!

(6). Perhaps the most important point of all, in understanding the (strictly Jewish) Book of James is that The Book of Acts (is not) the record of the creation of (our) Mystery Church of Eph 3:1-1O. But is simply the record of the final apostasy of The Jewish Nation of Israel, and the temporary, three phase, transitional, setting aside of National Israel's Gospel (of) The Circumcision, at Acts 13:46, 18:6, and 28:28! A subject, covered in much greater detail in numerous other studies by this same author.

Yes, in James Ch 2. James is speaking --of what man must see, i.e." one's outwardly visible "good works". While Paul is speaking "of what God must see" i.e.--one's inward, invisible saving faith".

Nowhere in the entire Bible, does it ever tell any saved Jew, saved Gentile, or saved member of (our) Mystery Church, of Eph 3:1-1O; Rom 16:25, 26, " to produce" the fruits of good works. But only "to bear" the fruits of good works, i.e., as being " produced solely" by The Indwelling Holy Spirit of Christ Jesus; i.e. as follows:

John 15:1-8 "I AM THE VINE, AND MY FATHER IS THE HUSBANDMAN. EVERY BRANCH IN ME THAT (BEARETH NOT FRUIT) HE TAKETH AWAY. AND EVERY BRANCH THAT (BEARETH FRUIT). HE PURGETH IT, THAT IT MAY BRING FORTH MORE FRUIT. NOW YE ARE CLEAN THROUGH THE WORD WHICH I HAVE SPOKEN TO YOU; (ABIDE IN ME, AND I IN YOU).

Now note this: (AS THE BRANCH, CANNOT BEAR FRUIT, OF ITSELF, EXCEPT IT ABIDE IN ME; NO MORE CAN YE, EXCEPT YE ABIDE IN ME. I AM THE VINE; YE ARE THE BRANCHES. HE THAT ABIDETH IN ME, AND I IN HIM, THE SAME BRINGETH FORTH MUCH FRUIT. FOR WITHOUT ME, YE CAN (DO NOTHING). HEREIN IS MY FATHER GLORIFIED-----THAT YE (BEAR) MUCH FRUIT)".
There it is. The saved are never told to "produce" the fruits of good works--but simply to "bear" the fruits of good works, which can only "be produced" by The Indwelling, Holy Spirit, of Christ Jesus!. Always remember what Christ said above, when the question of "working for the Lord" arises--i.e.---

"FOR WITHOUT (ME)------(YE) CAN DO NOTHING"

Or as Paul stated the matter simply, as follows: Gal 2:2O "I LIVE. YET NOT I. BUT CHRIST LIVETH IN ME". Christ alone, is to receive "all of the credit" for any and all of "the fruits of good works"--which He alone "produces" in us!

One good analogue of this would be.: We say that the moon shines; but the moon is a totally dead planet, which can not possible "produce any light"-- of it's own! The moon simply "reflects the light", which is " solely the reflected light, "produced by the sun! The same applies to the saved. We cannot (by ourselves) "produce" any "light"--acceptable to Almighty God. But can only "reflect the light" , that is "solely produced" by The Indwelling Spirit of God, The Son., as plainly so stated above. .

But then one might ask. What about all of the many "charitable acts" that are performed by "the world at large", .i.e. by so called "religious" "social", "fraternal", as well as numerous other "worldly organizations"?

The answer to this question is found in the following verses, where the literal Gr word for "CHARITY", is "AGAPE", or "LOVE", ---or, "GODLY LOVE". i.e. In the sense of that stated in 1 John 4:8 "GOD (IS) LOVE"; or as intended in the verses in question. "CHRIST (IS) LOVE"; inasmuch as Christ is indeed, "IMMANUEL, THE GOD WHO IS--LOVE WITH US", Matt 1:21-23, as follows:

1 Cor 13:1-3 "THOUGH I SPEAK WITH THE TONGUES OF MEN AND OF ANGELS, AND HAVE NOT LOVE (The Indwelling Christ). I AM BECOME AS SOUNDING BRASS, OR AS A TINKLING CYMBAL. AND THOUGH I HAVE THE GIFT OF PROPHECY, AND UNDERSTAND ALL MYSTERIES, AND ALL KNOWLEDGE;AND THOUGH I HAVE ALL FAITH SO THAT I COULD REMOVE MOUNTAINS. AND HAVE NOT LOVE (The Indwelling Christ)--- I AM NOTHING".

And as for "worldly charities"--AND THOUGH I BESTOW ALL MY GOODS TO FEED THE POOR; AND THOUGH I GIVE MY BODY TO BE BURNED;AND HAVE NOT LOVE (The Indwelling Christ Jesus)--(IT PROFITETH ME--NOTHING)". So much for any and all--"worldly charity"!

There it is. All of the so called "charitable acts" of the unsaved profit-- precisely nothing--as far as (God) is concerned. Only those acts (totally motivated) by The Indwelling Holy Spirit of Christ Jesus, are "motivated by" True Godly Love. And are therefore-- "recognized: and "accepted" by Almighty God, as being "of God".

Yes, as far as (God) is concerned. The multitude of "charitable acts" that are "performed" by all unsaved persons, are indeed empty, meaningless acts, as far as God is concerned. In that respect, notice those supposed "good works" of the above--as defined by Christ Jesus--, in the following verses:

Matt 7:22, 23 "(MANY) WILL SAY TO ME IN THAT DAY/ LORD, LORD, HAVE WE NOT PROPHESIED IN THY NAME? AND IN THY NAME HAVE CAST OUT DEVILS? (AND IN THY NAME HAVE DONE MANY WONDERFUL WORKS)?

AND THEN WILL I PROFESS UNTO THEM. I NEVER KNEW YOU (and you never knew Me). DEPART FROM ME. (YE THAT WORK INIQUITY)".

Yes, there are MANY, who "in the name of The Lord"--perform many acts of (worldly charity), i.e. with "soup kitchens", "flop houses", "good will services", and the like. What a shock they are going to receive--"IN THAT DAY", when Christ says unto them--"I NEVER KNEW YOU, . DEPART FROM ME. (YE THAT WORK INIQUITY)"/--And this, in spite of the fact that they called Him their--"LORD", "LORD". They will receive "no credit" whatsoever, for any or all of (their) so called "good works". Which of course---Christ Jesus said in the above verses, that (He) did not "produce" such--in them.

Yes, as shown in the foregoing verses of 1 Cor 13"1-3. There are "two kinds of charity". i.e. That of fleshly worldly, "mock charity", i.e. "TO BE SEEN OF MEN". And the "True Charity", which is "produced" solely by The Indwelling Spirit of Christ Jesus. Who (is) the one and only acceptable "motivating force", behind that of any and all---"Godly charity". But now to continue with "the works" of James Ch 2:

Another answer to the "FAITH, PLUS WORKS" message stated in James Ch 2;is found in "Christ's answer" to the (Jewish) Apostle's following question:

John 6:28, 29 "THEN SAID THEY UNO HIM/ WHAT SHALL WE (DO). THAT WE MIGHT WORK THE WORKS OF GOD? JESUS ANSWERED AND SAID UNTO THEM. (THIS) IS THE WORK OF GOD. (THAT YE BELIEVE ON HIM WHOM HE HATH SENT)--i.e. the work of faith; not a work of works--also set forth in the following verse::
1 Thess 1:3 "REMEMBERING, WITHOUT CEASING. YOUR (WORK OF FAITH) --AND--(YOUR LABOUR OF LOVE"), and not your (work of works) i.e. (your works, of the law of Moses).

Eph 2:8, 9 "FOR BY GRACE ARE YE SAVED, THROUGH FAITH. AND THAT NOT OF YOURSELVES. IT IS A GIFT OF GOD. (NOT OF WORKS). LEST ANY MAN SHOULD BOAST".

Titus 3:5 "NOT BY WORKS OF RIGHTEOUSNESS WHICH WE HAVE DONE. BUT ACCORDING TO HIS MERCY HE SAVED US--".

Rom 4:4 "NOW TO HIM THAT WORKETH, IS THE REWARD NOT RECKONED OF GRACE, BUT OF DEBT. BUT TO HIM THAT WORKETH NOT. BUT BELIEVETH ON HIM THAT JUSTIFIETH THE UNGODLY. HIS (FAITH) IS COUNTED FOR RIGHTEOUSNESS". So. (Our) "good works" are not counted (for us). (Our) good works are counted (against us).

Rom 11:6 "AND IF BY GRACE (alone). THEN IS IT NO MORE OF WORKS. OTHERWISE, GRACE IS NO MORE GRACE. BUT IF IT BE OF WORKS. THEN IS IT NO MORE GRACE. OTHERWISE, WORK IS NO MORE WORK". Like "oil" and "water", one cannot, and should not ever "co-mingle" "Grace"--and "works". The one--"cancels out the other"---completely! So states the foregoing verse..

Gal 3:1O-12 "FOR AS MANY AS ARE OF THE WORKS OF THE LAW ARE UNDER THE CURSE FOR IT IS WRITTEN. CURSED IS EVERY ONE, THAT CONTINUETH NOT IN (ALL THINGS) WHICH ARE WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW, TO DO THEM". BUT THAT NO MAN IS JUSTIFIED BY (the works of) THE LAW, IN THE SIGHT OF GOD IT IS EVIDENT. FOR THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH. AND THE (works of the) LAW, ARE NOT OF FAITH-".

Gal 2:16 "KNOWING THAT A MAN IS NOT JUSTIFIED BY THE WORKS OF THE LAW, BUT BY THE FAITH OF CHRIST JESUS. EVEN WE HAVE BELIEVED IN CHRIST JESUS, THAT WE MIGHT BE JUSTIFIED BY THE FAITH OF CHRIST, AND NOT BY THE WORKS OF THE LAW. FOR BY THE WORKS OF THE LAW, SHALL NO FLESH BE JUSTIFIED". So much for James' question concerning "the works of the law", in James 2:21. Paul went on to add the following basic reason--- for "no works":.

Gal 2:21 "I DO NOT FRUSTRATE THE GRACE OF GOD. FOR IF RIGHTEOUSNESS COME BY (the works of) THE LAW. THEN CHRIST IS DEAD IN VAIN". We, are not "made righteous" in the sight of God; by the life (we lead). But solely by The Life (He Led), e.g. Rom 5:1O. In attempting to establish our own righteousness).--i.e. By "self-righteous works of the law"--we thereby show that we consider Christ's sacrifice at Calvary--a meaningless event. For it was there that (HE) WAS MADE RIGHTEOUSNESS--for us; 1 Cor 1:3O. And when it comes to what one claims "to have done for God"---. Consider the following:

Isa 64:6 "BUT WE ARE ALL AS AN UNCLEAN THING. AND (ALL OUR RIGHTEOUSNESSES) ARE AS FILTHY RAGS--".
As for all those who claim "to do good works for The Lord", i.e. in response to the "FAITH WITHOUT GOOD WORKS, IS DEAD" of James Ch 2. Consider the following "summation" of the matter:

Ps 14:2, 3 "THE LORD LOOKED DOWN FROM HEAVEN UPON THE CHILDREN OF MEN. TO SEE IF THERE WERE (ANY) THAT DID UNDERSTAND AND SEEK GOD. THEY ARE (ALL) GONE ASIDE; THEY ARE (ALTOGETHER) BECOME FILTHY. (THERE IS NONE THAT DOETH GOOD)--NO---NOT ONE" Which would include (all) present day, James Ch 2--"do-gooders". It is our faith in Christ's In-wrought Works", that "produces" any and all "good works", acceptable by Almighty God. How do we know this to be so?
Phil 2:13 "FOR IT IS GOD WHICH WORKETH IN YOU. BOTH TO WILL, AND TO DO, OF HIS GOOD PLEASURE". "IT IS NO LONGER (I), BUT CHRIST THAT DWELLETH IN ME) said the Apostle Paul--As we should also so believe--and so state!

Wellington

Harry's Web Site: http://www.cybertrails.com/rdivbible/

Harry's Rightly Divided Bible: The Rightly Divided Bible

The invitation is open to call, write, E-mail, or visit--anytime.

Yours, In Christ's One Body

bibled@cybertrails.com

NEW ADDRESS!
Harry T Wellington
405 S Brassie Dr
Payson, AZ 85541
Ph 1-928-474-0398 (Please note: Some callers may have to use the *82 prefix; some may not, for some strange reason.)

CLICK HERE to learn more about Harry Wellington

Return to Index of Harry Wellington's Writings


You are visitor number to view this page